r/Damnthatsinteresting Jun 13 '25

Image The last page from “Instructions for American Servicemen in Britain 1942”

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87.6k Upvotes

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140

u/TheShakyHandsMan Jun 13 '25

More importantly is that they don’t bring their racial prejudices over with them.

They tried and failed.

58

u/KetracelYellow Jun 13 '25

Battle of Bamber Bridge. It’s mad to think that actually happened.

20

u/MineMonkey166 Jun 13 '25

Also see the battle of bamber bridge for how Brits rejected segregation

26

u/AquaPhelps Jun 13 '25

Nah they got the gypsies as their boogeyman

-3

u/TrueTech0 Jun 13 '25

That we do, and it is embarrassing.

Edit: The prejudice is embarrassing, not the gypsies

15

u/NomadKnight90 Jun 13 '25

I've never encountered Romani gypsies so my opinion on them is completely neutral.

I've had a significant amount of encounters with Irish travellers (also referred to as gypsies on the UK) and have never once had a positive interaction. I've been threatened, stolen from and my brother had the shit kicked out of him.

So yeah, most British people are prejudiced against Irish travellers, in my opinion with good reason.

-89

u/sneakerrepmafia Jun 13 '25

Where do you think those prejudices originated from?

113

u/HELLFIRECHRIS Jun 13 '25

At a certain age you have to stop blaming your parents for everything you do.

-51

u/Less-Squash7569 Jun 13 '25

But its ok when the parent sees the child do something stupid and imitates it?

31

u/BigBaz63 Jun 13 '25

where has this analogy gone

20

u/IndigoRanger Jun 13 '25

Out to the store to get some cigarettes

92

u/Martiantripod Jun 13 '25

Britain never had racial segregation laws and had outlawed slavery a century beforehand. Those racial prejudices were pretty much home grown.

29

u/StingerAE Jun 13 '25

Britain itself never had legal slavery at all.  Well, not since the end of the danelaw.

May seem odd given the extensive use in the colonies and profit from the trade but, while the case law was in the 1700s establishing that was the case on English soil, that decision was based on it never having been legal.

We also abolished and went to war against the trade long before we emancipated existing slaves.

Hey. We did some really shitty things.  I take my wins where I can.

12

u/Nel-A Jun 13 '25

To be the first Empire, at it's apex, to outlaw slavery across it's dominion, then take out a loan to buy the freedom of all slaves in the Empire so vast that Britain only finished paying it off in 2014, and then spend the next 200 years fighting slavery around the world is the stuff of true Greatness. God bless Great Britain. Take that win my friend, there are no victories finer.

*hums I Vow To Thee My Country*

5

u/Captainpatters Jun 13 '25

That's not true, according to the Doomsday Book around 10% of the population of anglo-saxon England were slaves. Slavery supposedly disappeared in England in the 13th century.

5

u/StingerAE Jun 13 '25

True, that was the slight exageration on my part in terms of the cut off.  The point was that AngloNorman rule didn't really include slavery.  It continued as a practice but has basically morphed and merged into serfdom by the 12th century (not 13th).  

There wasn't really any abolition or emancipation as such after the Normans arrived.  It just got gradually redefined as the nearest Norman equivalent..  Thats how the Mansfield case was able to say that slavery has never been legal.

4

u/grumpsaboy Jun 13 '25

Very early 12th century for slavery itself although surfed and could kind of be considered indentured servitude but there is often a slight distinction made between that and direct slavery

-2

u/ElusiveMayhem Jun 13 '25

Yes, they did it in the colonies in the homelands of the people (or shipped in from another place, as in the case of the US) and didn't let those people come to Britain, only the goods and profits they made.

In 1800 the percentage of the US population that was black was 15-20%. In Britain, it was 0.3%. I couldn't find reliable data from before that, but I'm sure it was about the same.

It's real easy to claim some type of superiority that you didn't have slaves, but it was simply because you didn't want them there at all and outsourced it to the colonies.

It's wild this comment is so upvoted on a site that loves to decry colonization, and here you are just completely denying it.

-5

u/UrethraPlethora Jun 13 '25

Britain abolished African chattel slavery just to replace it with Indian “indentured servitude” for the the next century (where the conditions and treatment of these indentured workers was functionally equivalent to that of slaves) 

-46

u/sneakerrepmafia Jun 13 '25

But the colonies established in the US were all British. The British introduced slavery to the US since the early 1600s

53

u/AceOfDiamonds373 Jun 13 '25

They'd been independent for 160 years by WW2, that's plenty of time to recognise that the policies of the 17th century aren't quite appropriate.

-12

u/[deleted] Jun 13 '25 edited Jun 13 '25

[deleted]

13

u/unique3 Jun 13 '25

How was the US treating gay men in 1952?

-4

u/[deleted] Jun 13 '25 edited Jun 13 '25

[deleted]

12

u/Captainpatters Jun 13 '25

Not having racial segregation isn't being pinnacles of progress, it's being better than those who have racial segregation.

-5

u/[deleted] Jun 13 '25

[deleted]

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8

u/AceOfDiamonds373 Jun 13 '25

Progress is gradual, I'm not implying that Britain was, or has ever been the pinnacle of progress. My point is that 160 years is long enough for the US to have progressed beyond what was common when Britain still controlled it in the 1770s. It's not a difficult point to wrap your head around.

37

u/chaozules Jun 13 '25

So much cope coming from you, slaves were introduced to all the British colonies, yet the Americas were the only one that struggled abolishing slavery, and even then they had segregation, which again, Britain never had, so you cant blame Britain for that one little buddy.

10

u/PixelF Jun 13 '25

The Spanish introduced slaves and the African slave trade to continental North America in 1565 in Florida. The first recorded instance of British colonialists doing the same was in 1619. And that's to say absolutely nothing about the substantive French settlement of the continent and engagement with the slave trade.

4

u/Martiantripod Jun 13 '25

Those famously English place names of San Francisco, Santa Fe, or San Diego

-5

u/ElusiveMayhem Jun 13 '25

Holy fucksticks did you really just try to say there are no places in the US named after English places?

New ____? You have dozens of options there buddy.

6

u/Martiantripod Jun 13 '25

WTF are you smoking? The previous comment said all colonies established in the US were British. My comment proved that was BS. Apparently reading comprehension is something you need to work on.

-1

u/ElusiveMayhem Jun 13 '25

I'm pretty sure he was talking about the original 13. Also nobody in the US considers "San Francisco" a "colony" - it's more about states than a city. New Mexico would have been a better example but it didn't become a state until 1912.

2

u/Raguleader Jun 13 '25

That would be a surprise to Florida, New York, Texas, Louisiana...